This is a follow-up to the earlier post on whether or not gay men are more promiscuous than heterosexual men. I just read the transcript of Ann Coulter’s comments at Kaus:

Mr. BEINART: It’s called bigotry, Ann. What part of bigotry don’t you understand?

Ms. COULTER: Are you claiming that gays are generally not more promiscuous? Is that what you’re claiming? Are both of you maintaining that gays are not–some segment of gays are not more promiscuous than heterosexuals? Is that the big point here?

KUDLOW: I…

Mr. BEINART: I’m saying that I don’t know that there’s any empirical evidence whatsoever here.

Ms. COULTER: No. I’m asking Larry here.

Mr. BEINART: And it’s a–it’s a–it’s a bigoted stereotype that you are fomenting.

Ms. COULTER: You don’t know any evidence that gays are more promiscuous than heterosexuals?

Mr. BEINART: Where’s your–where’s your evidence, Ann?

Ms. COULTER: Where have you been?

Mr. BEINART: Where’s your evidence?

Ms. COULTER: It’s a fact.

Mr. BEINART: Give me the evidence. Cite chapter and verse. You have no evidence whatsoever.

Ms. COULTER: I just cited the bathhouses. We don’t have heterosexual bathhouses. It’s well known.

Can anyone tell me what modifier is missing throughout this exchange (in which, while I’m not a big Coulter fan, and generally like Beinart, he comes off as an ignorant ass)? Hint, this isn’t strictly about homosexual versus straight.

Oh, and for extra bonus points, is it a societal given that “gay” applies only to males, and not to homosexual females (i.e., lesbians)?